Moses was a Jew???

I’m not sure how this topic arose on social media in the context of the Ghazzah massacre, but Muslims are posting that Moses (peace be upon him) was a Muslim and Jews are posting that he was a Jew.

I do not intend to prove the first claim. We as Muslims accept that all Prophets from Adam (peace be upon him) came with the same message. All submitted to Allah and all were Muslims, end of story. I really do not see the benefit of fighting with disbelievers on secondary points of belief, when the central issue should always be submission to Allah and His Messenger (sallallahu alayhi wa sallam).

Instead I wish to awaken the reader to the indoctrination that the world undergoes, that even some Muslims automatically accept the claim that Moses (peace be upon him) was a Jew. Whereas not even educated and honest Jews make this claim, as strange as it may sound. The reality is that the word never existed in his time. To apply it to him is entirely anachronistic and nonsensical.

To understand the veracity of what I have stated, where need to journey through history.

Ya’qub/Yaʿaqōv/Jacob (peace be upon him), also known as Israel, is the father of the tribes of Israel. His sons, the fathers of the Israelites are:

EnglishHebrewArabic
Reubenרְאוּבֵן‎ Rəʼūḇēnروبيل
Simeon שִׁמְעוֹן‎ Šīməʻōnشمعون
Levi לֵוִי‎ Lēwīلاوى
Judah יְהוּדָה‎ Yəhūdāيهودا
Issachar יִשָּׂשכָר‎ Yīssāḵārيشجر
Zebulun זְבוּלֻן‎ Zəḇūlunزيالون
Dan דָּן‎ Dānدان
Naphtali נַפְתָּלִי‎ Nap̄tālīنفتالي
Gad גָּד‎ Gāḏجاد
Asher אָשֵׁר‎ ’Āšērأشر
Benjaminבִּנְיָמִן‎ Bīnyāmīnبنيامين
Joseph יוֹסֵף‎ Yōsēp̄يوسف

It was the fourth son is the father of the tribe of Judah:

    Judah, one of the twelve tribes of Israel, descended from Judah, who was the fourth son born to Jacob and his first wife, Leah. It is disputed whether the name Judah was originally that of the tribe or the territory it occupied and which was transposed from which. After the Israelites took possession of the Promised Land, each was assigned a section of land by Joshua, who had replaced Moses as leader after the latter’s death. The tribe of Judah settled in the region south of Jerusalem and in time became the most powerful and most important tribe. Not only did it produce the great kings David and Solomon but also, it was prophesied, the Messiah would come from among its members.

    (Encyclopaedia Britannica 1998)

    Ultimately the word Jew/Yehudi derived from this tribe, according to the Jewish Encyclopaedia:

    In reality the name “Judaism” should refer only to the religion of the people of Judea, that is, of the tribe of Judah, the name “Yehudi” (hence “Judean,” “Jew”) originally designating a member of that tribe. In the course of time, however, the term “Judaism” was applied to the entire Jewish history.

    (Kohler, K. 1906).

    What is clear, not from Islamic sources, but the Jewish Encyclopedia, is that the term Jew/Yehudi had three stages of application. Let ask us, not by Muslim criteria, but according to them, if any of these are applicable to Moses (peace be upon him).

    1. Yehudi was originally a descendant of Yehuda. Does this apply to Moses (peace be upon him)? No, he was a descendant of the third, not fourth son:

    According to the biblical account, Moses’ parents were from the tribe of Levi, one of the groups in Egypt called Hebrews.

    https://www.britannica.com/biography/Moses-Hebrew-prophet

    The birth of Moses occurred at a time when Pharaoh had commanded that all male children born to Hebrew captives should be thrown into the Nile (Ex. ii.; comp. i.). Jochebed, the wife of the Levite Amram, bore a son, and kept the child concealed for three months. 

    https://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/11049-moses

    So, what is clear from Jewish sources is that he (peace be upon him) was descended from the third son, Lewi, not Yehuda. Thus, according to the original meaning of descendant of Yehuda, Moses (peace be upon him) was definitely not a Yehudi, not a Jew. Had you called him a Jew, he would have refuted it and stated that he was a Levite.

    2. Yehudi then developed to inhabitant of the land which the tribe of Judah occupied, in other words the tribe of Yehuda anyway. So in effect there is no major change from the first definition, but let us grant the Zionists some leeway and imagine that if Moses (peace be upon him) had lived amongst the Yehuda instead of the Levites, for some inexplicable reason, we would have to concede that he was at least an honorary Yehudi. In other words, did he inhabit the green shaded area which was allocated to the tribe of Yehuda?

    That is not what the Jews believe, stating that his soul was taken even before the Israelites conquered the land, let alone inhabiting the land of the Yehud:

    https://www.thetorah.com/article/the-torahs-three-explanations-for-why-moses-does-not-enter-the-land

    Thus even, by the second definition, Jews cannot call Moses (peace be upon him) a Jew.

    3. So Moses (peace be upon him) by Jewish standards was not a Jew according to the original meaning (descent from Yehuda), nor by the later meaning (inhabitant of the land of the Yehud tribe). Can Muslims at least concede that he was a Jew by religion? Most emphatically not. We need not even delve into the academic and theological details that the Judaism of today is something completely different which that which existed before the Roman destruction of Jerusalem, let alone the era of Moses (peace be upon him). As already quoted, the word was only much later used to describe a religion, how possibly can it be used to describe anyone who lived centuries before the fact?

    In reality the name “Judaism” should refer only to the religion of the people of Judea, that is, of the tribe of Judah, the name “Yehudi” (hence “Judean,” “Jew”) originally designating a member of that tribe. In the course of time, however, the term “Judaism” was applied to the entire Jewish history.

    (Kohler, K. 1906).

    Ironically there is a sense in which Jews can justifiably call Moses (peace be upon him) a Jew, but only in the sense of one who submits to Allah. And what do we call that in Arabic? Please do not make me spell it out for you. I hope the internet has not destroyed your brain.

    Rochel Chein of Chabad.org, states:

    The commentaries explain that the name Yehudah shares the same root as the Hebrew word hoda’ah, which means acknowledgement or submission. One who acknowledges G‑d’s existence and submits to His authority—to the extent that he is willing to sacrifice his life for the sanctification of His name—he is called a Yehudi.

    (Chein, R., n.d.)

    In conclusion, based on Jewish sources, it is laughable for anyone to call Moses (peace be upon him). What we can all agree on is that he was one who submitted to Allah.

    If anyone is interested in reading on the linguistic and Quranic usage of Jew, you may read my attached paper. Warning, it is the draft version, and even if I could find the finished version it was written under circumstances that I have to confess that is far from a brilliant work.

    سليمان الكندي

    X: @sulayman_kindi

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